Всероссийская олимпиада школьников по английскому языку. Задания конкурса Writing

Task 1

For items 1–10 listen to a passage from a lecture and decide whether the statements (1–10) are TRUE (A) , or FALSE (B) according to the text you hear. You will hear the text twice .
Аудиозапись

Some time ago the speaker went to buy a new bicycle.
- A) True
- B) False
The speaker left the shop without buying anything.
- A) True
- B) False
The speaker promised the shopkeeper to come back later.
- A) True
- B) False
The speaker didn’t want to offend the shopkeeper.
- A) True
- B) False
The speaker thinks that his behaviour in the shop was tactful.
- A) True
- B) False
The speaker disagrees with the Collins Dictionary definition of tact.
- A) True
- B) False
The speaker wants to find words that would make people feel better.
- A) True
- B) False
The speaker doesn’t refer to the situations when one needs to compliment somebody.
- A) True
- B) False
The speaker calls the behaviour when one is trying to help people avoid feeling bad negative behaviour.
- A) True
- B) False
The speaker thinks that only positive behaviour is important.
- A) True
- B) False

Task 2

For items 11–15 A, B or C ) to answer questions 11–15 . You will hear the text only once .

How does Patrick describe the Isle of Collett?
- A) As a place with bad weather conditions.
- B) As a very distant place.
- C) As a stony island.
What helped Patrick pass the time?
- A) Work on his university thesis.
- B) Weather research.
- C) Birdwatching.
When Patrick says ‘It took me less than 20 minutes’ he means that…
- A) he couldn’t leave his work for longer.
- B) the island is very small.
- C) he doesn’t like long walks.
What does Patrick say about his PhD thesis?
- A) He still has a year to work on it.
- B) It was rejected by the university.
- C) He has finished it.
Where does Patrick plan to spend his short holiday?
- A) In London.
- B) In the Mediterranean.
- C) Back on the Isle of Collett.

READING

Time: 45 minutes (40 scores)

Task 1

For items 1–10 , read the passage below and choose option A, B, C or D which best fits according to the text.

Duncan Phyfe

Duncan Phyfe made some of the most beautiful furniture found in America. His family name was originally Fife, and he was born in Scotland in 1768. In 1784, the Fife family immigrated to Albany, New York where Duncan’s father opened a cabinet making shop. Duncan followed in his father’s footsteps and was apprenticed to a cabinetmaker. After completing his training, Duncan moved to New York City. Duncan Fife was first mentioned in the 1792 NYC Directory as a furniture “joiner” in business at 2 Broad Street. Two years later, he moved, expanded his business, and changed his name to Phyfe. He was a quiet-living, God-fearing young man who felt his new name would probably appeal to potential customers who were definitely anti-British in this post-Revolutionary War period. Duncan Phyfe’s name distinguished him from his contemporaries. Although the new spelling helped him better compete with French émigré craftsmen, his new name had more to do with hanging it on a sign over his door stoop.
The artisans and merchants who came to America discovered a unique kind of freedom. They were no longer restricted by class and guild traditions of Europe. For the first time in history, a man learned that by working hard, he could build his business based on his own name and reputation and quality of work. Phyfe’s workshop apparently took off immediately. At the peak of his success, Phyfe employed 100 craftsmen. Some economic historians point to Phyfe as having employed division of labor and an assembly line. What his workshop produced shows Phyfe’s absolute dedication to quality in workmanship. Each piece of furniture was made of the best available materials. He was reported to have paid $1,000 for a single Santo Domingo mahogany log.

Phyfe did not create new designs. Rather, he borrowed from a broad range of the period’s classical styles, Empire, Sheraton, Regency, and French Classical among them. Nevertheless, Phyfe’s high quality craftsmanship established him as America’s patriotic interpreter of European design in the late eighteenth and early nineteenth centuries. Although the number of pieces produced by Duncan Phyfe’s workshop is enormous, comparatively few marked or labeled pieces have been found extant. In antiques shops and auctions, collectors have paid $11,000 for a card table, $24,200 for a tea table, and $93,500 for a sewing table.

Based on the information in the passage, what can be inferred about Duncan Phyfe?
- A) He regretted that Great Britain no longer governed New York City.
- B) He was an excellent businessman with a good sense of craftsmanship and design.
- C) He built all his furniture by himself in a workshop in Santo Domingo.
- D) He joined the cabinetmakers’ guild after he moved to Scotland in 1792.
According to the passage, which of the following does the author imply?
- A) Duncan Fife and his father had the same first name.
- B) Duncan Fife worked for his father in Scotland.
- C) Duncan Phyfe made over 100 different kinds of tables.
- D) Duncan Fife and his father were in the same business.
Which sentence in paragraph 2 explains Duncan’s name change?
- A) The third sentence.
- B) The second sentence.
- C) The first sentence.
- D) None of the above.
Which choice does the word ‘it’ refer to in the second paragraph?
- A) His spelling.
- B) His chair.
- C) His name.
- D) His French.
Which of the following does the word ‘freedom’ refer to?
- A) Restricted.
- B) No longer restricted.
- C) By working hard.
- D) Took off.
Which choice is closest in meaning to the word ‘guild’ in the third paragraph?
- A) Organization of craftsmen.
- B) Verdict of a jury.
- C) Political party of émigrés.
- D) Immigrants’ club.
Where in the passage could the following sentence be added to the passage? Every joint was tight, and the carved elements were beautifully executed.
- A) After the word “workmanship” in paragraph 3.
- B) After the word “cabinetmaker” in paragraph 1.
- C) After the word “stoop” in paragraph 2.
- D) After the words “sewing table” in the last paragraph.
In his business, Duncan Phyfe used all of the following EXCEPT:
- A) division of labor.
- B) an assembly line.
- C) continental designs.
- D) inexpensive materials.
Based on information in the passage, what can be inferred about Duncan Phyfe’s death?
- A) He died in the eighteenth century.
- B) He died in England.
- C) He died in the nineteenth century.
- D) He died in Scotland.
The author implies that furniture from Duncan Phyfe’s work-shop
- A) no longer exists.
- B) costs a lot of money today.
- C) was ignored by New Yorkers.
- D) was made by his father.

Task 2

For items 11–20 , read the passage below and choose which of the sentences A–K fit into the numbered gaps in the text. There is one extra sentence which does not fit in any of the gaps. Write the correct letter in boxes 11–20 on your answer sheet.

Ever since the 1910s, when film-makers first set up shops in Hollywood, mapmakers have been making quite unusual and even unique things: maps showing the locations of the fabulous homes of the stars. Collectively, they form an unofficial version of the Oscars, showing who’s in and who’s out in the film world. ‘Each one looks different,’ says Linda Welton, whose grandfather and mother pioneered these maps. 11 ________. Former film stars vanish from them, new ones appear on them, and some of the truly greats are permanent fixtures on them.
In 1933, noticing the steady stream of tourists going westward to follow the stars from Hollywood to Beverly Hills (the nearby district where most of the stars went to live), Linda’s grandfather, Wesley Lake, got a copyright for his Guide to Starland: Estates and Mansions. 12 ________. For 40 years Linda’s mother, Vivienne, sold maps just down the road from Cary Cooper’s place at 200, Baroda*. The asterisk indicates that it was the actor’s final home, as opposed to a plus sign (denoting an ex-home) or a zero (for no view from the street).
‘My grandfather asked Mom to talk to the gardeners to find out where the stars lived,’ Linda recalls. ‘She would come up to them and say: “ 13 ________” Who would suspect a little girl?’ Linda Welton and her team now sell about 10,000 maps a year from a folding chair parked curbside six days a week. 14 ________.

The evolution of the maps mirrors both the Hollywood publicity machine and real estate and tourism development. 15 ________. The first celebrity home belonged to the artist Paul de Longpre. 16 ________.

Although it is not known for certain who published the first map, by the mid-1920s all sorts of people were producing them. 17 ________.
One of the most famous of the early maps was produced to show the location of Pickfair, the home of the newly married stars Mary Pickford and Douglas Fairbanks, and the homes of some of their star friends. During World War I, they opened their home to serve refreshments to soldiers. As Vivienne Welton once explained in an interview, to a map and cartography magazine, ‘She asked a few friends to do the same. 18 ________.’

For over 40 years, people have marched toward the corner of Sunset and Baroda with hand-painted yellow signs saying: ‘Star Maps, 2 blocks’, ‘Star Maps, 1 block’, ‘Star Maps here’. The maps reflect the shifting geography of stardom as celebrities, looking for escape from over-enthusiastic fans, some with quite unhealthy intentions, have moved out to various districts in Malibu. 19 ________. Legendary stars – Garbo, Monroe, Chaplin – remain on them. 20 ________.

A. As they do so, they give advice to the tourists on star safaris through the lime green landscape of Beverly Hills.
B. Studios like Paramount published the names and addresses of its stars on theirs, and businesses distributed them as a promotional gimmick.
C. Others, however, say that the star maps are still an essential part of Hollywood and the film world.
D. More profoundly, perhaps, the maps suggest the temporary nature of fame.
E. Early film stars like Lillian Gish lived in modest, somewhat grubby rooming houses, taking street cars to and from the studio.
F. Updated regularly, they are still for sale at the corner of Sunset Boulevard and Baroda Drive.
G. And so a map was needed.
H. It is the oldest continuously published star map and one of a half-dozen or so maps of varying degrees of accuracy and spelling correctness sold today.
I. Oh, this is a beautiful garden, but who lives here?
J. Others, however, hang on for about a decade and then vanish.
K. He had a luxuriously-landscaped house at Cahuenga Avenue and Hollywood and real estate agents would take prospective clients past it on tours.

USE OF ENGLISH

Time: 60 minutes, (50 scores)

Task 1. Questions 1–15

For Questions 1–15 , read the text below and look carefully at each line. Some of the lines are correct, and some have a word which should not be there. If a line is correct, put a tick. If a line has a word which should not be there, write the word on your answer sheet. There are two examples at the beginning (0 and 00 ).

Example:

0	V
00	far

The Plaza hotel

0	The Plaza is situated close to the centre of town and only
00	20 minutes’ drive far from the airport. There are 605 guest
1	rooms providing a luxurious accommodation for tourists
2	and business people alike. Each room it is equipped with
3	a colour television, a mini bar and an individually-controlled
4	air conditioning. Guests have the choice of five superb
5	restaurants. Why not to sample local specialities in the Bistro
6	on the ground floor or enjoy yourself the finest international
7	cuisine in the fabulous Starlight Room with its panoramic
8	view of the city? There is a wide range of facilities for
9	relaxation and enjoyment including of a swimming pool,
10	health club, beauty salon and karaoke bar. In addition,
11	our modern conference centre which has been
12	designed to meet all your business needs. Why should you not stay
13	elsewhere when you can be sure of a warm welcome
14	and excellent service at the Plaza? For reservations
15	and information please to call 010 534 766 (24 hours).

Task 2. Questions 16–25

Example: 0 . The pool isn’t deep enough to swim in.
too
The pool ……………………. swim in.

0	*is too shallow to*

Laura had to pay a fine of 50 dollars because she didn’t have a ticket.

dollar
Laura had to pay …………………… because she didn’t have a ticket.

The concert wasn’t as good as we had expected.

live
The concert didn’t ……….. our expectations.

I’ve been too busy to answer my emails, but I’ll do it soon.

round
I haven’t ………… my emails yet, but I’ll do it soon.

It’s nearly lunchtime, so would you like to eat something?

feel
It’s nearly lunchtime, so do ……………………………… something to eat?

Complaints about the food! That’s all I ever hear from you!

always
You …………………………… the food!

They took advantage of the day-off at work and went to the seaside!

most
They ………………… of the day-off at work and went to the seaside!

Two detectives investigating the robbery questioned us for over an hour.

enquiries
Two detectives ……………….. the robbery questioned us for over an hour.

Jake was the person who started my interest in collecting pottery.

got
It was Jake ………… in collecting pottery.

He really wanted to impress the interviewers.

desperate
He ………………………. the interviewers a good impression.

Because he was injured he couldn’t play in the next game.

prevented
His ……….…. in the next game.

Task 3. Questions 26–30

Informal English	Neutral Equivalents
26. Oh well, don’t let it get you down	A) to borrow sth for a short time
27. I wish you’d stop going on about it for hours on end.	B) to change one’s mind
28. It really bugs me when people don’t return my pen after they’ve borrowed it.	C) to fool sb
29. My bicycle’s been nicked	D) to annoy sb
30. He flipped his lid	E) to upset sb
	F) to steal sth
	G) to argue
	H) to lose one’s temper
	I) to speak steadily
	J) to surprise sb

Task 4. Questions 31–40

31 . The Trail of Tears	A) the artist who made his masterpieces by putting the painting on the floor and then walking around it, letting the paint drip from sticks
32 . John Bull	B) a figure who stands for the USA sometimes represented by the figure of a man with a white beard and tall hat
33 . The Great Gatsby	C) This book deals with a poor Cockney girl who is taught how to speak and behave like an upper class lady as a scientific experiment.
34 . Prohibition	D) the period from 1919 to 1933 in the US when the production and sale of alcoholic drinks was illegal
35 . Louisiana Purchase	E) an English filmmaker of the 20-th century who specialized in thrillers
36 . Pygmalion	F) the massive area of land bought from France in 1803 which doubled the US size
37 . The Great Depression	G) a figure who stands for England in literary and political satire
38 . Jackson Pollock	H) a group of eight old and respected universities in the Northeastern US
39 . The Ivy League	I) the path that the Cherokees, forced to move away from their homes, travelled in the autumn and winter of 1838 to 1839
40 . Alfred Hitchcock	J) the severe economic problems that followed the Wall Street Crash of 1929 and resulted in the failure of many banks and businesses
	K) This novel describes the rise and fall of the main character, who extravagantly lives from bootlegging. He loves a beautiful woman who is the cause of his downfall.
	L) an English animator of the 20-th century who is famous for inventing some of the best-known cartoons
	M) Oxford and Cambridge together

WRITING

Time : 60 minutes, (30 scores)

Comment on the following quotation.

“All that glisters is not gold.”

Write 200–250 words .

Use the following plan:

explain how you understand the author’s point of view;
express your personal opinion and give 2–3 reasons in its support;
give examples to illustrate your reasons, using your personal experience, literature or background knowledge;
make a conclusion.

Внимание!

При превышении объема более чем на 10% от заданного (276 слов и более), проверяются первые 250 слов . При превышении объёма менее чем на 10% от заданного, баллы за содержание не снижаются.

Audioscript

Listening comprehension

For items 1–10 listen to a passage from a lecture and decide whether the statements (1–10) are TRUE (a), or FALSE (b) according to the text you hear. You will hear the text twice.
You have 20 seconds to study the statements.
(pause 20 seconds)

Now we begin.

Some time ago, I was in a bicycle shop looking for a new lock for my bicycle. The shopkeeper showed me several, patiently explaining their advantages and disadvantages. None of them was quite what I wanted and eventually I said to the shopkeeper, “I’ll think about it. Thanks very much”, and left the shop. Why did I say, “I’ll think about it”? Not something more straightforward like, “None of these is right”, “They’re too big”, “They are too small”, “They’re too expensive”, “I’ll go elsewhere”? I think, there are two reasons why I chose to say “I’ll think about it”. The first is that I didn’t want the shopkeeper to feel that his products were not valued or that his time had been wasted and second is that I didn’t want to be the object of his possible annoyance or irritation. In other words, I didn’t want him to feel bad. And I didn’t want me to feel bad. We have words for this general behavior pattern of not wanting ourselves or other people to feel bad as a result of the interactions that we have… have with other people. We talk about tact, which is defined in the Collins Concise Dictionary as ‘the sense of what is fitting and considerate in dealing with others so as to avoid giving offence’, or we might equally call this, as many people do, politeness behaviour. Now notice that the definition of tact talks about avoiding giving offence. It is not talking about something positive that we do in order to make people feel better than they otherwise would. So, here we are not talking about the kind of behaviour we get into when, for example, we console a friend whose cat has just been run over or compliment our partner on a very well-cooked meal. We are not trying here to positively make people feel better, but trying to avoid them feeling bad. So, this is a negative kind of behaviour that I’m talking about. But the fact that it’s negative doesn’t mean that it’s not terribly important. It is extremely important. It is essential to our self-preservation and to social cohesion. And for this reason avoidance behaviour is of great interest to many different kinds of scholars.

(pause 20 seconds)

Now listen to the text again.

(text repeated)

You have 20 seconds to check your answers.

(pause 20 seconds)

For items 11–15 listen to the dialogue. Choose the correct answer (A, B or C ) to answer questions 11–15 . You will hear the text only once.
You now have 25 seconds to study the questions.

(pause 25 seconds)

Now we begin.

A Lonely Job

Jane : Wherever have you been, Patrick? I haven’t seen you for months. Someone said you’d emigrated.

Patrick : Whoever told you that? I’ve been working on a weather research station on the Isle of Collett.

Jane : Where on earth is that?

Patrick : It’s a lump of rock about 100 miles north-west of Ireland.

Jane : Whatever did you do to pass the time?

Patrick : Fortunately I had my university thesis to work on. If I hadn’t had a pile of work to do, I’d have gone off my head.

Jane : Was there anything else to do?

Patrick : Well, if you were a bird watcher, it would be a paradise; but whenever I got tired of studying, I could only walk round the island – and that took me less than twenty minutes.

Jane : However did you stand it? If I’d been in your shoes I’d have taken the first boat back to civilization.

Patrick : Well, I needed some information for my research there, and they paid me, so I saved some money. Now I can have a short holiday before I start looking for a job.

Jane : Have you finished your PhD already? I thought you had another year to do.
Patrick : No, time flies, you know. As long as they don’t reject my thesis, I’ll be leaving for London next week.

Jane : If I were you, I’d go off to the Mediterranean or somewhere before starting work.

Patrick : No thanks, I’ll stay in London. I’ve had enough of the sea for a while. This is the end of the listening comprehension part. You have 1 minute to complete your answer.

Keys

Use of English
Item	Answer
1	a
2	it
3	an
4	V
5	to
6	yourself
7	V
8	V
9	of
10	V
11	which
12	not
13	V
14	V
15	to
16	a 50-dollar fine
17	live up to
18	got round to answering
19	you feel like having
20	are always complaining about
21	made the most
22	making enquiries into/ about
23	who/ that got me interested
24	was desperate to give
25	injury prevented him from playing
26	E
27	I
28	D
29	F
30	H
31	I
32	G
33	K
34	D
35	F
36	C
37	J
38	A
39	H
40	E

Подсчёт баллов за все конкурсы

Listening – максимальное количество баллов 30. Задание проверяется по ключам. Каждый правильный ответ оценивается в 1 балл. За неверный ответ или отсутствие ответа выставляется 0 баллов. Затем полученное количество баллов умножается на два.

Reading – максимальное количество баллов 40. Задание проверяется по ключам. Каждый правильный ответ оценивается в 1 балл. За неверный ответ или отсутствие ответа выставляется 0 баллов. Затем полученное количество баллов умножается на два.

Use of English – максимальное количество баллов 50. Задание проверяется по ключам. В заданиях 1, 3, 4 каждый правильный ответ оценивается в 1 балл. За неверный ответ или отсутствие ответа выставляется 0 баллов. В задании 1 орфография не учитывается. В задании 2 каждый правильный ответ оценивается в 2 балла. За неверный ответ или отсутствие ответа выставляется 0 баллов. Орфография учитывается. Если дан грамматически правильный ответ, но в ответе допущены орфографические ошибки, ответ оценивается в 1 балл.

Writing – максимальное количество баллов 30. Задание оценивается по Критериям оценивания. Затем полученное количество баллов умножается на два. При подведении итогов баллы за все конкурсы суммируются. Максимальное количество баллов за все конкурсы – 30 + 40+ 50 +30 = 150.

Федеральное государственное бюджетное образовательное учреждение высшего образования

Тульский государственный

педагогический университет им. Л.Н. Толстого

(ФГБОУ ВО «ТГПУ им. Л.Н. Толстого»)

Задания муниципального этапа всероссийской олимпиады школьников_2017/2018 учебного года

по английскому языку

Тула 2 O 17

Список разработчиков

1. Андреев В.Н. - канд.филол.наук, доцент, зав.кафедрой английской филологии

2. Игнатова И.В. - канд.филол.наук, доцент кафедры английской филологии ТГПУ им.Л.Н.Толстого

3. Трайковская Н.П. - канд.филол.наук, доцент кафедры английской филологии ТГПУ им.Л.Н.Толстого

4.Уварова Е.А. - канд.филол.наук, доцент кафедры английской филологии ТГПУ им.Л.Н.Толстого

5. Болушевская И.Н. - ст.преподаватель кафедры английской филологии ТГПУ им.Л.Н.Толстого

6. Калинина Е.В. - ст.преподаватель кафедры английского языка ТГПУ им.Л.Н.Толстого

7. Конистерова Е.А. - ст.преподаватель кафедры английского языка ТГПУ им.Л.Н.Толстого

Список использованной литературы

1.Virginia Evans, Jenny Dooley. Upstream. Level B1+. Student’s Book. Express Publishing, 2006

2. V. Evans Round-up 4. English Grammar Practice. – Longman: Pearson Education, 2009

3. R. Murphy English grammar in use. – London: Cambridge University Press, 2009

4.Listening Extra - CUP, 2007

5.Reading Extra- CUP, 2004

6.Cochrane S., Nicholas R., Aravanis R. Code Red B2 Student Book. – Macmillan, 2010

7.Spencer D. Gateway 2nd Edition B2+ Student’s Book Premium Pack. – Macmillan, 2016

8.Busyteacher.org – образовательный сайт

Задания для 9-11 классов

Аудирование (Listening )

Time: 15 minutes

You will hear people talking in ten different situations. For questions 1-10, choose the best answer (A, B or C). You will hear the recording once.

1 You hear a person speaking about the clothes suitable for some occasion. Where does the occasion take place?

A a wedding

B a friend’s birthday party

C a classical ballet

2 The speaker is discussing a person’s style. What is wrong with it?

A It is untidy.

B It is too informal.

C It is too formal.

3 You hear two people talking about a friend of theirs. What does the woman say about the friend?

A He talks a lot about his lifestyle.

B He leads a comfortable lifestyle.

C He may change his lifestyle.

4 You overhear a man talking to a friend on his mobile phone. Why is he phoning?

A to persuade his friend to do something

B to ask for some information

C to change an arrangement

5 You hear a woman talking about her family’s financial situation. What is she going to do?

A ask someone to help her

B try to find a job

C sell something valuable

6 You overhear a man and a woman talking about their morning routine. How does the man feel about his mornings?

A He hates travelling to work.

B He does not like getting up early.

C He finds it difficult to talk to other people.

7 You hear a woman on the radio talking about her experiences in a foreign country. What surprised her about the people?

A the importance they give to clothes

B the type of food they eat

C their attitude to work

8 You turn on the radio and hear the following. What is it?

A a review

B a news report

C an advertisement

9 You hear two people talking about the village they both live in. What does the woman think of the village?

A People are not always very friendly.

B Some of the roads are dangerous.

C There are not enough children.

10 You hear a man talking about his job. Who is the man?

A a hotel doorman

B a hotel receptionist

C a hotel manager

Чтение (Reading)

Time: 3 0 minutes

1. For questions 1-10, read the text below. Use the word given in capitals at the end of the lines to form a word that fits in the gap in the same line. Write your answers in CAPITAL LETTERS.

Good Neighbours

According to a recent survey, most people are (1) _____with
their neighbours and think they deserve better! It’s not that they want to have a close (2) _____with them, but they would
like them to be more (3) _____. The ideal neighbour is
apparently ‘friendly, but not too (4) _____, easygoing and
dependable.’ Noise is one of the biggest problems, with loud music and barking dogs at the top of the list. (5) _____between neighbours are becoming more and more
common. Take the recent case of a man in the United Kingdom who was (6) _____ to control his fury when his
neighbour started mowing his lawn at seven o’clock one Sunday morning. Still dressed in his pyjamas, the man climbed over the garden fence and grabbed the lawnmower. Then, while his neighbour watched in (7) _____, he threw
the lawnmower into the garden pond! ‘I’m usually a (8) _____
person,’ the man later said. ‘The (9) _____ is I was tired and I
wanted to have a lie-in.’ Fortunately, most people don’t go to these extremes, even if they aren’t always in (10) _____ with their neighbours about everything!

2. Read the text and answer the questions that follow (only one answer can be correct)

Pyramid Legends

There are persistent legends that the Great Pyramid was used as some sort of sacred initiation center. According to one legend, students who had first undergone years of preparation, meditation and metaphysical instruction in an esoteric school (the mythic "Hall of Records" hidden deep beneath the desert sands somewhere near the Great Pyramid and the Sphinx) were placed in the granite coffer of the main chamber and left alone throughout an entire night. The coffer was the focal point of the energies gathered, concentrated, aimed, and directed at the main chamber by virtue of the precise mathematical location, alignment, and construction of the pyramid. These energies, considered to be especially potent at certain precisely calculated periods when the earth was in a particular geometric alignment with solar, lunar, and stellar objects, were conducive to the awakening, stimulation, and acceleration of spiritual consciousness in the suitably prepared adept. While it is now nearly impossible to spend an evening alone in the coffer of the main chamber, it is interesting to read the reports of those persons who have done so in the past. Mention will be made of experiences both terribly frightening (perhaps because of the lack of any appropriate training on the part of the experimenter) and also deeply peaceful, even spiritually illuminating. Napoleon himself spent a night alone in the chamber. Emerging pale and dazed, he would not speak of his powerful experiences, only saying, "You would not believe me if I told you."

A second matter needing further inquiry from the scientific community studying the Great Pyramid - and one that might help explain the subject just discussed - concerns the matter of unexplained energetic anomalies frequently noticed and recorded in the main chamber. In the 1920s, a Frenchman named Antoine Bovis made the surprising discovery that, despite the heat and high humidity of the main chamber, the dead bodies of animals left in the chamber did not decay but completely dehydrated. Thinking that there might be some relationship between this phenomena and the position of the main chamber in the pyramid, Bovis constructed a small-scale model of the pyramid, oriented it to the same direction as the Great Pyramid, and placed the body of a dead cat at the approximate level of the main chamber. The result was the same. As he had observed in the Great Pyramid, the cat"s body did not decay. In the 1960s, researchers in Czechoslovakia and the U.S., conducting limited studies of the geometry of the pyramid, repeated this experiment with the same results. They also found that the form of the pyramid somehow mysteriously kept foods preserved without spoiling, sharpened dull razor blades, induced plants to germinate and grow more quickly, and hastened the healing of animals" wounds. Other scientists, in consideration of the high quartz content of the granite blocks in the main chamber and the incredible pressures those blocks are subjected to, theorized that the main chamber may have been the focal point of a powerful piezoelectric field; magnetometer measurements inside the chamber indeed showed higher levels than the normal background geomagnetic field.

Although much research remains to be done in these areas, legend, archaeology, mathematics, and earth sciences seem to indicate that the Great Pyramid was a monumental device for gathering, amplifying, and focusing a mysterious energy field for the spiritual benefit of human beings. We do not know exactly how the pyramid and its main chamber were used, and the geometric structure of the pyramid has been subtly altered by the removal of the casing stones and the cap-stone. None-the-less, the Great Pyramid of the Giza plateau still emanates great power as a transformational power place. It has done so for uncounted thousands of years and seems destined to continue for ages to come.

11 Why were the ancient meditation students placed inside the Great Pyramid?

1) to practice meditation skills

2) to be taught there

3) to learn more about there inner balance

4) To gain physical and spiritual power

12 It’s impossible to spend a night in the Pyramid because

1) it’s too scary

2) it’s forbidden by law

3) the admittance is not allowed

4) there are too many people there

13 The potential energy of the Pyramid could be experienced

1) at night only

3) when the Earth is in balance with solar system

4) when stellar objects are close to the Earth

14 Which energetic anomalies were not registered in the Pyramid?

1) it kept water fresh

2) it kept the dead bodies from decay

3) the injuries were healed quicker

4) it made the plants grow faster

15 What helped to keep food fresh in the Pyramid?

1) the form of the Pyramid

2) sharpened dull razor blades

3) the geomagnetic field

4) a powerful piezoelectric field

Лексико-грамматический тест (Use of English )

Time: 15 minutes

I. Read and complete the following sentences (only one answer can be correct)

1. «What …?» «I’m a student.»

a. do you b. do you do

c. you d. you do

2. … I have a table for two please?» «Sure.»

a. Would b. Must

c. Could d. Do

3. That isn’t your umbrella. It’s ….

a. her b. my

c. him d. mine

4. His English is very good. He speaks Italian …, too.

a. badly b. bad

c. good d. well

5. My cousin … for my birthday.

a. gave me a camera b. gave to me a camera

c. gave a camera me d. me gave a camera

6. The woman … came yesterday is very rich.

a. she b. who

c. which d. than

7. «Please be patient.» He told me … .

a. to be patient b. be patient

c. that be patient d. that I be patient

Read the text and choose the right alternative.

How I got my dream job

Andy Collins , 46 : “ As a student, I earned $295 a week in cash working in a beach café. At the time, it was my 8 (job dream / dream job / job of dream)! Later I became a 9 (cooker / waiter / chef). It was hard work, I was 10 (never / rarely / often) in a hot kitchen for twelve hours a day, six days a week. But you 11 (might / could / have to) know the meaning of hard work if you want to 12 (achieve / deliver / pass) your goals. I now own five restaurants around the U. S. My best advice 13 (was / is / were) to find 14 (in / out / on) what your skills and talents are. Talent is something you’re born with. Skills are something you’ve learned to do. People like doing things that come 15 (nature / natural / naturally) to them, so work and enjoy!”

For questions 16-25 , read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each gap.

Sales of George Orwell"s 1984 surge after Kellyanne Conway"s

"alternative facts"

Sales of George Orwell’s dystopian drama 1984 have soared after Kellyanne Conway, adviser to the reality-TV-star-turned-president, Donald Trump, used the (16) ________“alternative facts” in an interview. As of Tuesday, the book was the sixth (17)______ book on Amazon.

Comparisons were made with the term “newspeak” used in the 1949 novel, which was used to signal a fictional language that aims at (18) ______ personal thought and also “doublethink”. In the book Orwell writes that it “means the power of (19) _____ two contradictory beliefs in one’s mind (20) _______, and accepting both of them”.

The connection was initially made on CNN’s Reliable Sources. “Alternative facts is a George Orwell phrase,” said Washington Post reporter Karen Tumulty.

Conway’s use of the term was in reference to White House press secretary Sean Spicer’s comments about last week’s inauguration (21) ______“the largest audience ever”. Her interview was widely criticized and she was sub-tweeted by Merriam-Webster dictionary with a definition of the word fact. On last night’s Late Night with Seth Meyers, the host joked: “Kellyanne Conway is like someone trying to do a Jedi mind (22) ____ after only a week of Jedi training.”

In 1984, a superstate wields extreme control (23) ____ the people and persecutes any form (24) ___ independent (25) _____thought.





				D simultaneously

24. A. of B. to C. forward to D. up to

25. A. idea B. thought C. country D. frame

Time: 45 minutes

You are to write a letter of application. Read the job advertisement below

SAFE-JOURNEY TOURS

TOUR GUIDES

We are looking for cheerful, enthusiastic, sociable people who

Speak two or more languages

Have travelled a lot and are interested in other countries and cultures

Are ready to explore the world

Can motivate and engage people

Please apply to

Anne Jackson, Personnel Manager

Safe-Journey Tours, Victoria Street, London SW16VC, UK

Write your letter of application for SAFE JOURNEY TOURS

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ANSWER SHEET 9-11 listening, reading .doc

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ANSWER SHEET: LISTENING, READING (9-11)

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ANSWER SHEET: WRITING (9-11)

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В тексте присутствуют многочисленные ошибки (более 7) в разных разделах грамматики, в том числе затрудняющие понимание текста.

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В тексте присутствуют многочисленные орфографические (более 4) и/или пунктуационные ошибки (более 7) , в том числе затрудняющие понимание текста.

Процедура проверки работ в конкурсе письменной речи

 Каждая работа проверяется в обязательном порядке двумя экспертами, которые работают независимо друг от друга (никаких пометок на работах не допускается), каждый эксперт заносит свои оценки в свой протокол оценивания.

 Если расхождение в оценках экспертов не превышает двух баллов, то выставляется средний балл. Например, если первый эксперт ставит 9 балов, а второй 8 баллов, выставляется итоговая оценка в 9 баллов; если первый эксперт ставит 9 балов, а второй 7 баллов, выставляется итоговая оценка в 8 баллов.

 Если расхождение в оценках экспертов составляет три или четыре балла, то назначается еще одна проверка, в этом случае усреднению подлежат две наиболее близкие оценки.

 «Спорные» работы (в случае большого – 5 и больше – расхождения баллов) проверяются и обсуждаются коллективно.

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Script 1

Before the curtain rises, let"s listen to their conversation.

A: What took you so long? The play is starting soon.

B: I wanted to buy something to eat, but that turned out to be a wild-goose chase. This theater does not have any food!

A: I thought you went home.

B: Why would I leave?

A: I suspect you know more than you think.

B: What do you mean?

B: Well, I wish you would have told me that this theater doesn’t serve food before my wild-goose chase. I’m so hungry! A friend has been staying with me for the past month and he’s eating me out of house and home! There"s nothing left in my house to eat.

B: What expression, “I’m hungry!”?

B: That is exactly what is happening … just like in Henry IV!

A: So, why has your friend been staying with you for so long?

B: He says he got into a little trouble with the law and needs to lie low for a while.

A: Well, you must understand a little because you use his expressions all the time. “It’s Greek to me” is from the play Julius Caesar ! And it’s a one way to tell someone you don’t have a clue what’s going on.

A: Guess what?

Script 2

Chef Randall: Well, hello everyone, and welcome to today"s show. And joining me today is my daughter, Ashley, who has had to endure my cooking experiments over the years.

Are we ready, Ashley? No, let"s wait for a few minutes. We"ll get to that. But as you know, my faithful listeners, I starting cooking and baking almost 30 years ago when my grandmother taught me in her humble kitchen. In fact, she taught almost me everything I know, and I"ve never attended cooking classes Wait, wait, wait . . . I know my daughter"s going to mention to you faithful listeners that recently as I was helping the kids prepare for our kitchen for chicken meal, I forgot to take the chicken out of the oven, burned the bird to a crisp, and we ended up ordering pizza for dinner.

Kids: We had to use the fire extinguisher.

Chef Randall: But that"s another story. So, anyway, today I"d like to share with you our favorite . . . at least my favorite . . . chocolate chip cookie recipe. Now, before you switch the TV channel, I know what you are thinking. "Another fattening cookie recipe." But wait. What makes this recipe great is that it offers a wonderful low-fat, low-calorie, low-cholesterol dessert for the entire family.

Kids: We still like the fat though.

Chef Randall: Well, I know we do. But let"s see. We have all the ingredients, so we can start by mixing all of the ingredients, the sugars, the flour, the egg whites, the low-fat butter, vanilla, baking soda, and a pinch of salt in a large mixing bowl. Then, we add the mini chocolate chips

Now, my kids would like me to add the big ones but we start with the mini-chocolate chips. And don"t forget to preheat the oven to 350 degrees (Fahrenheit).

And finally, when the cookies are done, take them out of the oven, remove them from the cookie sheet, and let them cool before their fingers get into them. Did I forget anything?

Kids: Yeah, if you have college-age kids, be sure to make a few extra batches they can take back to school for their roommates. And don"t forget the kids still at home.

Chef Randall: Oh, well yeah. We can"t do that. We can"t forget them. And unfortunately, by the time your kids get the cookies, you, the cook, will be left with a single cookie - your instant diet plan for you - and a dirty kitchen.

So, that"s all for today. On next week"s show, we will be showing you how to feed hungry teenagers on a budget without having to sell the family car. Until then.

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Муниципальный этап всероссийской олимпиады школьников по английскому языку, 2016 г.

9-11 классы

Part 1. Listening Comprehension (20 minutes)

Task 1. Say if the statements are True (A) or False (B).

One of the speakers uses the term ‘wild goose chase’ because he failed to buy food at the theatre.

‘A wild goose chase’ used to mean a horse race.

The speaker’s friend needs to lie low in order to avoid detection.

In old times the colour green was associated with good health.

If you cannot make head or tail of something, you say, ‘It’s Greek to me!’

‘Be-all and end-all’ means the least significant part of something.

Task 2. Match the expressions with the plays where they appeared. There are four extra plays which you do not need to use.

11) wild goose chase

12) eat someone out of house and home

13) lie low

14) it’s all Greek to me

15) be-all and end-all

Hamlet

Romeo and Juliet

King Lear

Macbeth

Othello

Julius Caesar

Richard III

Henry IV

Much Ado About Nothing

Task 3. Listen to the programme and fill in the gaps with no more than two words for each gap. You’ll hear the recording twice.

Chef Randall started cooking ________ years ago when his grandmother taught him how to do it.

He has never ___________ cooking classes.

When Randall was helping the kids prepare a chicken meal, he forgot to take the chicken out of the __________ .

The bird was burnt and they had to use a ________ _______________.

A chocolate chip cookie is an excellent ___________ for the entire family.

Chef Randall mixes sugar, ___________, egg whites, low-fat butter, vanilla, baking soda and salt.

It’s necessary not to forget to ___________ the oven to 350°.

When the cookies are ready, remove them from the cookie _________.

By the time the kids get the cookies, the chef will be left with a _________ cookie and a dirty kitchen.

Next time Randall will show how to feed hungry teenagers on a _______.

Part 2. Reading Comprehension (15 minutes)

Read the text about English houses and say whether the statements given below are True (A), False (B) or Not Given (C).

Most people in England live in flats.

Typical housing in Britain does not differ from that in other European countries.

High-rise buildings are a common feature of English towns and cities.

Tenants are evicted if they make noise and break the rules.

Having a garden is really important for an Englishman.

Terraced houses were cheaper to build than high-rise buildings during the Industrial Revolution.

In the times of the Industrial Revolution open fires heated all the rooms of the terraced house.

Semi-detached houses were not expensive to build and seemed convenient for people.

Most English homes are bought on a mortgage.

There are few old houses in England.

Rich people detest living in houses.

Bungalows are houses built on one level only and are an excellent dwelling for old people.

Flat residents pay rent and utilities.

Flats are popular among students, old people and poor families.

Living in a flat means more flexibility – it is easier to cancel the lease and move to a different location.

From towns and cities let us turn to the houses of Britain. The most important point is to understand that most of us do not live in flats. Every country has its typical housing so that if you cross from England into France or Germany or Spain, you will know instantly that you are in another country. The differences are partly architectural, partly aspects of the way people choose to domesticate their immediate surroundings. But there are also similarities. If you travel from Russia across Europe to western France you will observe that almost all cities have a centre with old buildings of three or four even five storeys, but that these centres are surrounded by modem blocks of high-rise flats. The details will vary, but all countries have found that the obvious solution to cheap new housing in order to accommodate families moving from the countryside or needing improved conditions is to build blocks of flats. They are rarely beautiful or spacious, but they are convenient and efficient. The problems are similar: noise, cramped public areas, unpredictable water supplies, broken lifts ... but they are homes for millions of people who prefer them to the more primitive conditions they have left.

In England, however, our cities are not encircled by these high-rise buildings. We resist living in flats; we prefer to live in rows of small brick houses. Of course some English people enjoy living in flats, but for the vast majority of us, the basic idea of home is a brick house with rooms upstairs and downstairs and with a garden, even if it is a very small garden.

The brick house is a legacy of the English - the earliest - Industrial Revolution. Employers at the beginning of the nineteenth century had to build accommodation for the millions of workers pouring into the cities and at that time they did not have the materials or technology for cheap building upwards. For them the cheapest solution was to build rows of small houses joined together (terraces), each with two small rooms downstairs and two small rooms upstairs. The rooms were small because they were heated by open fires, not by stoves, and families tended to huddle in one room (the kitchen). Bedrooms were unheated, and to this day many English people find it impossible to sleep except in a cold room with the windows wide open.

Most of our housing schemes thereafter are logical improvements to this working-class pattern. Houses became larger; millions of us live in houses with two rooms and a kitchen downstairs, and two or three small rooms plus bathroom-and-toilet upstairs. Before the First World War someone invented the ‘semi-detached house" which was still cheap to build but which allowed each family to reach the back of their house down a narrow side passage. This enabled men to carry sacks of coal to the back yard where it could be stored and used for the boiler and open fires.

Russians have a habit of describing anything built before about 1955 as ‘old’. (So do Californians, and no doubt many other people.) In England a house does not qualify as old unless it was built at least a hundred years ago. We still have tens of thousands of really old houses, built between the fourteenth and eighteenth centuries scattered throughout the country. They may be inconvenient but richer people love to live in them so they become very expensive, even when they are quite small. Thousands of these older houses are strikingly beautiful and protected by law. At the other end of the scale are ‘bungalows’, small brick houses of only one storey, built especially for the elderly. Many older people move from a house into a bungalow.

I have written that we do not live in flats. To be more precise, most of us do not live in flats unless we are young or old or poor. Students and young people who are renting accommodation will often find a converted flat constructed inside one of the many houses built for a single family with their servants a hundred years or more ago. These houses are too big for today’s family (with no servants!) so they are converted into three or four separate flats. The arrangement and size of rooms is often odd, but they have the advantages of ordinary family houses such as a garden.

Part 3. Use of English (55 minutes)

Task 1. For items 1-10, read the text below and think of the word which best fits each gap. Use only one word in each gap. The first example (0) is done for you.

Suffolk is often overlooked (0) as a holiday destination.

A beautiful and unspoilt county, its countryside 1) _____ dotted with beautiful historic towns and villages, while exquisite beaches line the coast.

Much of Suffolk 2) ______ escaped the unsightly development blighting other counties, although its landscape is often dismissed 3) ______ monotonous and flat.

There’s lots of variety, spanning a romantically bleak coastline giving way 4) ______ salt marsh and sandy heaths, rich forest and fen, valleys and rolling hills.

Along the 60-mile coast, there’s the sleepy, ancient town of Orford, and genteel Aldeburgh. Orford boasts a 12th-century castle and 14th-century church, river cruises and pleasant pubs. Buy freshly baked bread from Pump Street Bakery, which also has a cafe. For smoked fish and local delicacies, pop 5) ____ Pinney’s, or dine in its celebrated restaurant, the Butley Orford Oysterage – its no-frills decor belies the delicious food 6) _____ offer.

The smart seaside town of Aldeburgh is a favourite with artists, composers and yachtsmen. It’s also home 7) _____ the annual Aldeburgh Festival (June) founded by Benjamin Britten, which is an arts festival with an emphasis 8) _____ classical music.

Aldeburgh 9) _____ once a thriving port with a successful ship building industry, the Golden Hind was built here, which circumnavigated the globe in the 16th century captained 10) _____ Sir Francis Drake.

Task 2. Read the interview with a well-known British actress Angela Griffin and complete the text with the correct form of the verbs from the box (affirmative or negative).

land do take work sign suppose be need teach grass

A Cup of Tea with Angela Griffin

How do you take your tea?
I like builder’s tea, with a little bit of milk.

Who would you most like to have a cup of tea with?
Ryan Gosling. He’s gorgeous! We could do a little cultural exchange. I’ll introduce him to the tea-drinking culture of England.

What’s the strangest job you’ve ever had?
When I was 14, I got a job sticking little bows onto shampoo bottles in a factory. I 11) ______________ to be working at all, but I lied and said I was older than I was. I lasted about two and a half hours before somebody 12) _____ me up to the managers.

When did acting become part of the picture?
My auntie Linda 13) ________ me to drama classes at Leed’s Children’s Theatre since I was 5. I had an agent by the time I was a teenager, and had done some children’s television programmes. Acting was my passion, but we 14) ______ a well-off family so if I wanted to buy something I had to earn the money myself.

Were you quite an independent teenager?
I guess so. I 15) ________ my first role in Coronation Street when I was 17, and moved into a flat on my own. By my 18th birthday, I 16) _________ the deeds to my first house in Leeds.

What did your parents think of your acting career?
They were just happy that I had a passion. Acting’s not their thing at all. My dad was a cleaner and my mum 17) _________ office skills at college. But they were glad I had something to aim for. I feel the same about my two daughters.

Your daughter Tallulah, 14, is now a working actress herself . Do you worry about the pressure the industry places on young actors?
Things are so much tougher for the youngsters now. It’s not just about the talent anymore. You’ve got to have the looks too. And there are some real scoundrels out there, but luckily I can guide Tallulah because I know how the business 18) __________ .

Do you tell Tallulah what she can and can’t do?
Until she’s 18, yes definitely! She’s mine, I own her. But I’m not one of these Victorian mums. If she 19) ________ to go away for 16 weeks to film a series then I will let her. I’m very open-minded to it all, but I’m not going to let her do a Lolita role or go live in America on her own at 14. I know how these things should go.

Task 3. For questions 21-30, think of one word only which can be used appropriately in all three sentences.

The temperature _______ to the freezing point.

People _______ like flies within weeks of being diagnosed.

I’d rather you _______ me a line.

I feel that I can never get _______ with George again.

We must _______ out the differences between social classes.

The tables are fitted with a glass top to provide an ________ surface.

I’d like to ________ your attention to the problem of unemployment in your region.

I was going to _______ $100 out of my account.

I don’t want you to _______ the wrong conclusion from the meeting.

It was my mother’s decision to _______ me Stephen.

Call James, tell him to _______ the price.

My best friend made her _______ with several collections of short stories.

This company is a takeover _________ .

It has been the ________ of international criticism for human rights abuses.

The arrow hit the centre of the _________ .

Sandra was writhing in ________, bathed in perspiration.

The practice of changing the clocks twice a year is a real _______.

It’s a _______ in the neck having to meet all my relatives at the airport.

Memories of that evening were still ________.

Simon has got a _______ imagination.

As I spoke, there came a _______ flash of lightning closely followed by a peal of thunder.

Old-age pensioners are __________ free to the museum.

Martin _________ that he had made a mistake.

It was well-known that the hall ________ 300 people.

The ice on the Great Lakes will ________ up soon.

I hate people who ________ their promise, they are not reliable.

Who’s going to ________ the bad news to her?

This novel is ______ in London in the 1960s.

I’m not to blame, I’ve been ______ up.

The arsonist who _______ fire to a family home in Barrow where two young children and several adults were sleeping has been jailed.

Task 4. Complete the text with the words from the box. There are 5 extra words, which you do not need to use.

the Tower of London the Houses of Parliament Westminster Abbey Robert Catesby James I Queen Mary II Queen Elizabeth I Charles I Guy Fawkes Lord Monteagle money cellar penny effigies gunpowder

In 1605, thirteen young men planned to blow up 31) _______________. Among them was Guy Fawkes, Britain’s most notorious traitor.

After 32) ___________________ died in 1603, English Catholics who had been persecuted under her rule had hoped that her successor, 33) _______, would be more tolerant of their religion. He had a Catholic mother and did not turn out to be tolerant. So, a number of young men, 13 to be exact, decided that violent action was the answer.

A small group took shape, under the leadership of 34) _____________ who felt that violent action was warranted. The plotters were going to kill the King, maybe even the Prince of Wales who were making life difficult for the Catholics.

To carry out their plan, the conspirators got hold of 36 barrels of 35) __________________ – and stored them in a 36) _____________.

But as the group worked on the plot, it became clear that innocent people would be hurt or killed in the attack, including some people who even fought for more rights for Catholics. Some of the plotters started having second thoughts. One of the group members even sent an anonymous letter warning his friend, 37) ____________, to stay away from the Parliament on November 5th. Was the letter real?

The warning letter reached the King, and the King’s forces made plans to stop the conspirators.

38) _______________ was caught by the authorities near the barrels, tortured and executed. The Plot was foiled in the night between the 4th and 5th of November 1605. Already on the 5th, agitated Londoners who knew little more than that their King had been saved, joyfully lit bonfires in thanksgiving. As years progressed, however, the ritual became more elaborate.

Soon, people began placing 39) _______________ onto bonfires, and fireworks were added to the celebrations. Preparations for Bonfire Night celebrations include making a dummy of Guy Fawkes, which is called “the Guy”. Some children even keep up an old tradition of walking in the streets, carrying “the Guy” they have just made, and beg passersby for “a 40) ________ for the Guy.” The kids use the money to buy fireworks for the evening festivities.

On the night itself, Guy is placed on top of the bonfire, which is then set alight; and fireworks displays fill the sky.

Part 4. Writing (40 minutes)

Time: 40 minutes

Write a composition expressing your opinion on the following problem:

Chinese will soon become an international language.

Write 180 -220 words.

Remember to

make an introduction,

express your personal opinion on the problem and give 3-4 reasons for your opinion,

make a conclusion.

Transfer your composition to the answer sheet!

Найдите материал к любому уроку,

2010–2011 учебный год

9–11 класс

Ключи к заданиям

Аудирование

Faegbc
A1 – 2

Чтение

Bcfageh cfebag
A15 – 3

Грамматика

B4 – later

B10 – hasworked

B11 – independent

B12 – southern

B14 – extremely

B15 – commercial

A22 – 3

ТЕКСТЫ ДЛЯ АУДИРОВАНИЯ

Вы услышите 6 высказываний. Установите соответствие между высказываниями каждого говорящего 1–6 и утверждениями, данными в списке A–G. Используйте каждое утверждение, обозначенное соответствующей буквой, только один раз. В задании есть одно лишнее утверждение. Вы услышите запись дважды. Занесите свои ответы в таблицу. У вас есть 20 секунд, чтобы ознакомиться с заданием.

Now we are ready to start

Speaker 1

My cat is rather special. She understands perfectly well when I ask her to come and sit with me, but she can pretend that she doesn"t hear. And she always knows which of the people that I invite to my home are okay and which ones aren"t. And when I have a headache in the evening she comes and sleeps over my head. I sometimes ask myself how she knows that I have a headache.

Speaker 2

When I was 4 years old, my mum found a kitten in the street and brought it home. So, the kitten and I grew up together! I remember that every night the cat would scratch at my door and I let her in. She waited for me to come home from school to be with her and liked watching me, as I was doing my homework. She lived 8 years. And she was truly my cat. I really miss her much.

Speaker 3

The thing I love about cats is the way they look. Their eyes are big and the colour is deep-blue like the sky, green like leaves or brown like amber. Their fur can be long or short, and if you treat your cat well, its fur will look shiny and rich. I haven"t seen a combination of colours that looked bad on cats – black and white, gray and white, orange and white – they all look perfect.

Speaker 4

The best thing about cats is that they"re wonderful to talk to when you"re sad or angry and you can"t control your emotions. Cats won"t talk back while you are talking to them, and will listen intently. They make me laugh when I"m in a bad mood, they comfort me when I"m sick. And when I"m happy they start playing with me and we all have lots of fun.

Speaker 5

Although I have had many cats, for everyone of them there is a reason why we found each other. Now I have three cats. One of them is the boss of my other cats. The second one is very smart and likes to open doors. And the third one thinks that the world turns around her and she is very proud of herself. All of my cats are very special to me because each of them has her or his own character. They are a great part of my life!

Speaker 6

What I like about cats is that they can take care of themselves. You don"t have to take a cat out for a walk several times a day. You don"t need to wash them too often, because they clean themselves. Cats can play on their own and don"t require too much of your attention. They can spend most of the time sleeping. And they even can get their own food by catching mice and spiders.

Now you will hear the texts again. (Repeat.)

Вы услышите разговор мужа с женой. Определите, какие из приведенных утверждений А1–А7 соответствуют содержанию текста (1 – True), какие не соответствуют (2 – False) и о чем в тексте не сказано, то есть на основании текста нельзя дать ни положительного, ни отрицательного ответа (3 – Not Stated). Обведите номер выбранного вами варианта ответа. Вы услышите запись дважды. У вас есть 20 секунд, чтобы ознакомиться с заданиями.

Now we are ready to start.

Philip: Ellen, come here and stand by the back door. Look at the rain.

Ellen: This is quite a storm! It"s good to be home in such a nasty weather.

Philip: Remember the last time we had thunder and lightning like this? The old cherry tree we had in our back yard was struck by lightning. I was afraid the nearby trees would also catch fire. If I"m not mistaken it was two or three years ago. We lost our electrical power as well.

Ellen: Luckily, it was in the middle of the day. Having no electricity at night is a lot different from having none during the day.

Philip: We must have talked about that because I remember going out the next day to buy a box of candles – just in case of a power failure.

Ellen: Well, let"s hope that doesn"t happen tonight and we won"t need them. Shall I call your friend Mark and ask him for dinner? He is a good storyteller and it would be nice to hear one of his stories.

Philip: Why not? Would you hand me the electric mixer, please? I forgot to finish mashing the potatoes.

Ellen: Here you are.

Philip: Thanks.

Ellen: There go the lights. It has happened again. We"ve got no electricity.

Philip: I can"t see a thing. I guess, no mashed potatoes for dinner today.

Ellen: Philip, why don"t you call the power company? Tell them we have a problem on Linden Street. And I"ll light the candles if I manage to find a box of matches in the cupboard. Here they are. Philip, doesn"t the kitchen look great in candlelight?

Philip: It does... I called the company. They already know about the electrical problem. A tree fell onto a power line on the next street. People from nearby houses called them. They don"t know how long the lights will be out.

Ellen: Philip, I just thought about Mrs. Romero. She"s quite old, and she lives all alone in that big house. Wouldn"t she be more comfortable spending the evening with us?

Philip: Ellen, set another place for dinner. I"ll go and invite her over right now.

You have 15 seconds to complete the task. (Pause 15 seconds.)

This is the end of the task. You now have 15 seconds to check your answers.

А8–А14

Вы услышите интервью. В заданиях А8–А14 обведите цифру 1, 2 или 3, соответствующую выбранному вами варианту ответа. Вы услышите запись дважды. У вас есть 50 секунд, чтобы ознакомиться с заданием.

Now we are ready to start.

Interviewer: With us today is Cynthia Barnes, a travel writer. Cynthia, how did you happen to become a travel writer? Let"s start with a bit of history. Tell us about your childhood.

Cynthia: I grew up in a small town in the state of Arkansas with kids who had never been to any other places and who desperately wanted to see the world. They used to invent adventures for themselves in order to make up for the monotony of their real life. But I was lucky. My mom used to go on business trips to the neighboring states and once in a while she took me with her. They were real adventures and I was delighted but it had always been my dream to go to the far off countries I had read about in the "National Geographic" magazines. There were piles of them in dad"s study as well as an unlimited supply of books about explorations and adventures.

Interviewer: What do you usually feel before you set out on a journey?

Cynthia: I remember when I was little the night before we"d leave for a trip I had an absolutely unforgettable feeling – that "can"t-sleep, butterfly feeling". I couldn"t wait to go. It"s still with me today.

Interviewer: And how did you get started writing?

Cynthia: I have always been writing. I even won a Daughters of the American Revolution poetry contest in the fifth grade, and they gave me a fifty dollar saving bond. It was a childish little poem that began: "Our nation, it was founded by brave people long ago..." Then I moved to Columbia and fell in with a group of writers... Actually after school, all my jobs eventually were about producing newsletters, correcting ads, rewriting bad brochures. I"ve always kept journals, written letters, played around with personal essays. I never stopped writing. I can"t do without it. It"s in my blood.

Interviewer: You spend most of your life traveling. What do you do when you don"t travel?

Cynthia: If I don"t travel, I write. But I don"t stop traveling, to be honest. I travel everywhere at any time and in any possible way: by car, by plane, by horse or camel, by canoe or simply on foot.

Interviewer: Is it the major challenge for you as a travel writer?

Cynthia: Well, you see, traveling is a great pleasure and a thrill for me although some of my friends find it tiring to be constantly away from home for a long time. I like meeting new people, hearing their stories, tasting their food. But writers need time alone to reflect on what they have seen, what they have heard. And that"s where the problem lies. In a true to life story, a lot depends on whether you can balance your own solitary exploration and other people" stories. When you"re with others, you"re distracted. But when you"re by yourself, you have only your own impressions and observations and they can be misleading.

Interviewer: What was the most thrilling experience you had as a traveler?

Cynthia: It was an incredible expedition together with two adventurous travelers. We went to the rainforest in New Guinea, the most remote forest on Earth. We trekked across the island and lived with the local tribe. They are hunters, they live in total isolation from the rest of the world. Their only tools are stone axes and arrows. To survive in the jungle with them was a hard-core challenge. We had to learn how to eat insects as we simply couldn"t hunt even small wild animals the way they do. But in fact the biggest challenge was to establish contacts with the local tribe. You see, when we arrived, they met us with arrows, which they pointed at our heads very aggressively. It wasn"t the kind of greeting we were used to. We didn"t know a word in their language to speak to them, to ask them what all these rituals meant. We had to learn all this stuff to survive, to watch our gestures and tone of voice or we would die in the jungle.

Interviewer: What advice would you give to someone who is considering going into travel writing?

Cynthia: It"s great work... but it"s work. It"s also an obligation. You are in charge of what you write. Maybe your reader will never go to a place you"re writing about but he has always dreamt about it. Don"t sell yourself or your observations short. And never ever trade your stories for TV clips. Writing is not about bargaining or getting profits. Telling stories about travel is an honorable profession. Mark Twain was a travel writer. So was Hemingway.

Interviewer: What is the biggest reward of life as a travel writer?

Cynthia: I sometimes go to luxury resorts to write stories about the area. Of course I"m kidding (laughs). You see, I"ve watched the sunrise on the Pacific coast and seen the Grand Canyon under a full moon. I saw fascinating sights in these places, the views. But most valuable is the incredible generosity and the spirit of the people I"ve met on my routes. It"s the biggest blessing to have a glimpse into their lives. This is what makes me stay in my business.

You have 15 seconds to complete the task. (Pause 15 seconds.)

Now you will hear the text again. (Repeat.)

This is the end of the task. You now have 15 seconds to check your answers.

This is the end of the Listening Test.

К организации и проведению муниципального этапа всероссийской олимпиады школьников по английскому языку

В 2017-2018 учебном году

Введение

Требования к организации и проведению муниципального этапа всероссийской олимпиады школьников (далее - олимпиада) по английскому языку в 2017-2018 учебном году разработаны:

В соответствии с Порядком проведения всероссийской олимпиады школьников, утвержденным приказом Министерства образования и науки Российской Федерации от 18 ноября 2013 года № 1252, с изменениями, внесенными приказом Минобрнауки России от 17 марта 2015 года № 249, 17 декабря 2015 года № 1488, 17 ноября 2016 года №1435;

2017-2018

Классы

В комплект материалов, необходимых для проведения конкурса понимания устного текста, входят:

Описание процедуры проведения конкурса понимания устного текста

Текст задания

Ключи и транскрипция (для членов жюри)

Аудиозапись

На выполнение всех заданий отводится 10 минут, включая время, отводимое на инструктаж и внесение ответов в ответные листы.

Первое задание – диалог. После прослушивания (текст звучит 2 раза) участникам предлагается определить, какие из приведенных утверждений 10-12 соответствуют содержанию текста (A-True), какие не соответствуют (B-False).

Правильность выполнения заданий проверяется по ключам.

Критерии оценивания: За каждый правильный ответ дается 1 балл. Максимальное количество баллов, которое можно получить за конкурс Listening – 12 (двенадцать).

Описание процедуры проведения конкурса понимания письменного текста

Текст задания

Ключи (для членов жюри)

Лист ответа (для каждого участника)

Задания по чтению состоят из двух частей (всего 20 заданий). На выполнение всех заданий отводится 45 минут, в которые входит и внесение ответов в ответные листы.

Первое задание – чтение текста. Задание нацелено на проверку навыков детализированного чтения с полным пониманием текста: участники должны подобрать название каждому абзацу.

Второе нацелено на проверку общего понимания текста: участники должны определить высказывания по тексту как True/False/Not Stated.

Третье задание требует детального понимания текста.

Сложность текстов соответствует уровню сложности B1 по шкале Совета Европы.

Тематика текстов представляет интерес для учащихся данного возраста. Тексты подобраны по принципу тематического разнообразия; задания проверяют разные виды чтения, в конкурсе сочетаются задания разного типа.

В текстах могут содержаться до 2-3% незнакомых слов, незнание которых не должно препятствовать пониманию текста и выполнению заданий.

Критерии оценивания: Каждый правильный ответ оценивается в 1 балл. Максимальное количество баллов, которое можно получить за конкурс Reading – 20 (двадцать).

Лексико-грамматический тест – Use of English

Описание процедуры проведения лексико-грамматического теста

Текст задания

Ключи (для членов жюри)

Лист ответа (для каждого участника)

Методические рекомендации

Лексико-грамматический тест состоит из трех заданий. Всего в тесте 20 вопросов. На выполнение всех заданий отводится 30 минут, в которые входит и внесение ответов в ответные листы.

Задания соответствуют уровню сложности B1 по шкале Совета Европы.

Задание 1 представляет собой текст, в котором нужно заполнить пропуски. Для этого нужно выбрать правильное слово или правильную грамматическую форму из трех предложенных.

Задание 2 проверяет знание вводных слов и конструкций. Учащимся предлагается заполнить пропуски, восстановив логические связи в связном тексте.

Задание 3 нацелено на проверку социо-культурных связей, а именно языка формального и неформального общения.

Критерии оценивания

Задания 1-3: Каждый правильный ответ лексико-грамматического теста оценивается в 1 балл. Орфографические ошибки в заданиях учитываются, при наличии орфографической ошибки в листе ответа балл за правильный ответ не начисляется.

Максимальное количество баллов, которое можно получить за конкурс Use of English – 20 (двадцать).

Конкурс письменной речи – Writing

Учащимся предлагается написать статью, объемом в 120-150 слов.

На выполнение задания отводится 30 минут.

Предлагаемый жанр письменной работы проверяет умения продуктивного письма.

При оценке письменной работы учитываются следующие критерии: содержание, композиция, лексика, грамматика и орфография.

Максимальное количество баллов – 20.

Конкурс устной речи – Speaking

В комплект материалов, необходимых для проведения конкурса понимания письменного текста, входят:

В конкурсе устной речи участвуют 2 члена жюри и 2 участника олимпиады.

Все инструкции участникам конкурса устной речи даются на английском языке.

Преподаватели-члены жюри приглашают к своему столу пару участников. Пары составляются методом случайной подборки.

I этап – разминка (см. описание в карточке члена жюри).

Внимание! Не допускаются вопросы, которые направлены на выяснение фамилии участника, номера школы, в которой учится участник, и т.д.

II этап – основное задание (см. описание в карточке члена жюри).

Время ответа пары участников:

Разминка – 1 минута.

Подготовка ответа – 1 минута.

Ответ участника №1 – 1 минута.

Вопросы по ответу участника №1 – 2 минуты.

Ответ участника №2 – 1 минута.

Вопросы по ответу участника №2 – 2 минуты.

Максимально отводимое время на пару участников составляет 10 минут.

По сложности задание соответствует уровню B1 по шкале Совета Европы.

Муниципальный этап олимпиады по английскому языку

2017-2018

Продолжительность олимпиады – 180 минут (3 часа).

Первое задание – аудирование (Listening), выполнение трех заданий по текстам, воспринимаемым на слух. Данные тексты записаны на аудионоситель. На выполнение этих заданий отводится 40 минут.

Второе задание – чтение (Reading). Предлагаются два задания. На выполнение этих заданий отводится 30 минут.

Третье задание – лексико-грамматическое (Use of English). Предлагаются три задания. На выполнение этих заданий отводится 60 минут.

Четвертое задание – страноведческое. На выполнение этого задания отводится 10 минут.

Пятое задание – составление письменного текста (Writing). На выполнение этого задания отводится 40 минут.

УСТНЫЙ этап НЕ ПРЕДУСМОТРЕН.

КРИТЕРИИ ОЦЕНИВАНИЯ И ПОДСЧЕТ БАЛЛОВ

Listening – максимальное количество баллов 20. Эту сумму дают:

Задание 1: максимальное количество баллов 8.

Задание 3: максимальное количество баллов 7.

Задания проверяются по ключам. Каждый правильный ответ оценивается в 1 балл. За неверный ответ или отсутствие ответа выставляется 0 баллов.

Reading - максимальное количество баллов 12. Эту сумму дают:

Задание 1: максимальное количество баллов 7.

Задание 2: максимальное количество баллов 5.

Use of English - максимальное количество баллов 36. Эту сумму дают:

Задание 1: максимальное количество баллов 12.

Задание 2: максимальное количество баллов 11.

Задание 3: максимальное количество баллов 13.

Задание проверяется по ключам. Каждый правильный ответ оценивается в 1 балл. За неверный ответ или отсутствие ответа выставляется 0 баллов.

UK and USA - максимальное количество баллов 8.

Writing - максимальное количество баллов 10. Задание оценивается двумя независимыми экспертами по Критериям оценивания (максимальный экспертный балл – 10).

При подведении итогов баллы за все конкурсы суммируются.

Максимальное количество баллов за все конкурсы – 86 баллов.

АУДИРОВАНИЕ (LISTENING)

Для проведения конкурса в каждой аудитории должны находиться:

Старший член жюри в аудитории, который проводит необходимый инструктаж, включает и выключает магнитофон, ведет учет времени и отвечает за количество сданных текстов заданий и листов ответов.

Несколько членов жюри (количество членов жюри в аудитории зависит от количества участников), которые отвечают за порядок в аудитории, за проверку документов участников, за рассадку участников в аудитории, за раздачу и сбор текстов заданий и листов ответов.

Перед входом в аудиторию участник должен предъявить паспорт или другое удостоверение личности. Документы участников перед входом в аудиторию проверяют члены жюри.

Участники должны сидеть в аудитории на таком расстоянии друг от друга, чтобы не видеть работу соседа. Рассадку участников в аудитории осуществляют члены жюри.

Участник может взять с собой в аудиторию ручку, очки, шоколад, воду.

В аудиторию не разрешается брать бумагу, справочные материалы (словари, справочники, учебники и т.д.), пейджеры и мобильные телефоны, диктофоны, плееры и любые другие технические средства.

Процедура проведения конкурса

1.1. Каждому участнику перед началом выполнения заданий выдается ЛИСТЫ С ЗАДАНИЯМИ и ЛИСТ ОТВЕТОВ (Answer Sheet).

Проводится инструктаж на русском языке по заполнению листов ответов и по порядку их сдачи после окончания работы:

Участники заполняют графу Participant"s ID number на листах ответов. Номер участника закрепляется за ним в момент регистрации на время проведения всех конкурсов олимпиады. Во время регистрации участнику выдается значок с его номером (бейдж), который участник носит на лацкане пиджака или в другом доступном для обозрения месте.

Все ответы необходимо отмечать на листах ответов. Правильный вариант пишется в соответствующей клеточке на листе ответов.

Исправления на листах ответов ошибками не считаются; однако почерк должен быть понятным; спорные случаи (о или а) трактуются не в пользу участника.

Ответы записываются только черными или синими чернилами/ пастой (запрещены красные, зеленые чернила, карандаш)

1.2. Участникам раздаются тексты заданий. В тексте заданий указано время выполнения заданий и даны все инструкции по выполнению заданий на английском языке. Тексты заданий можно использовать в качестве черновика. Однако проверке подлежат только ответы, перенесенные в лист ответов. Сами тексты заданий сдаются вместе с листами ответов после окончания выполнения задания, но не проверяются. Запрещается выносить тексты заданий и любые записи из аудитории.

1.3. Члены жюри, находящиеся в аудитории, должны зафиксировать время начала и окончания задания на доске (например, 10.10 - 11.55.) За 15 и за 5 минут до окончания выполнения заданий старший член жюри в аудитории должен напомнить об оставшемся времени и предупредить о необходимости тщательной проверки работы.

1.4. Участники начинают выполнять задания с части аудирования (понимания устного текста). Перед прослушиванием первого отрывка член жюри включает пленку/ диск и дает возможность участникам прослушать самое начало пленки с текстом инструкций. Затем пленка выключается, и член жюри обращается к аудитории с вопросом, хорошо ли всем слышно пленку/диск. Если в аудитории кто-то из участников плохо слышит пленку/диск, регулируется громкость звучания и устраняются все технические неполадки, влияющие на качество звучания пленки/диска. После устранения неполадок пленка/диск перематывается, ставится на самое начало и еще раз прослушивается вводная часть с инструкциями. После инструкций пленка/диск не останавливается и прослушивается до самого конца.

1.5. Вся процедура аудирования записана на диск (или пленку): задания, предусмотренные паузы, звучащий текст.

ПЕРВОЕ задание по аудированию предполагает прослушивание высказываний ВОСЬМИ человек. Каждое высказывание повторяется ДВА раза. К каждому высказыванию прилагается вопрос и ТРИ варианта ответа. Конкурсант должен выбрать один из предложенных ТРЕХ вариантов ответа.

ВТОРОЕ задание по аудированию предполагает прослушивание высказываний ПЯТИ человек. Каждое их этих высказываний надо соотнести с одним из предложенных ШЕСТИ предложений, помеченных БУКВАМИ: эти предложения резюмируют суть высказывания каждого говорящего. Данное задание записано и прослушивается ДВАЖДЫ.

ТРЕТЬЕ задание по аудированию предполагает прослушивание интервью. Предлагается СЕМЬ вопросов и, отвечая на каждый вопрос, конкурсант должен выбрать один из предложенных ТРЕХ вариантов ответа.

Ответы переносятся на лист ответа.

1.6. Во время аудирования участники не могут задавать вопросы членам жюри или выходить из аудитории, так как шум может нарушить процедуру проведения конкурса.

1.7. Время проведения первой части конкурса ограничено временем звучания записи. После окончания звучания записи участники выполняют задания по письменным текстам

ЧТЕНИЕ (READING)

Задание на чтение состоит из ДВУХ заданий.

ПЕРВОЕ задание предполагает чтение, понимание и сравнение ДВУХ текстов. Участник должен ответить на СЕМЬ вопросов и решить, имеется ли информация:

В каждом тексте

Ни в одном из текстов

Только в первом тексте

Только во втором тексте.

ВТОРОЕ задание предполагает чтение и понимание ОДНОГО текста. Участник должен ответить на ПЯТЬ вопросов, выбирая в каждом случае один из ТРЕХ предложенных вариантов ответа.

ЛЕКСИКО-ГРАММАТИЧЕСКИЙ ТЕСТ (USE OF ENGLISH)

У участника олимпиады должны быть ЛИСТЫ С ЗАДАНИЯМИ и ЛИСТ ОТВЕТА.

Данное задание состоит из ТРЕХ заданий.

Выполняя ПЕРВОЕ задание, участник должен в 12 местах вставить одно из ЧЕТЫРЕХ предложенных слов.

Выполняя ВТОРОЕ задание, участник должен образовать из предложенных 11 слов новые слова и вставить их к текст.

ТРЕТЬЕ задание относится к типу OPEN CLOZE. Нужно вставить в 13 местах в тексте слова, подходящие по смыслу.

СТРАНОВЕДЧЕСКОЕ ЗАДАНИЕ

У участника олимпиады должны быть ЛИСТЫ С ЗАДАНИЯМИ и ЛИСТ ОТВЕТА.

Участник должен ответить на ВОСЕМЬ вопросов, выбирая в каждом случае один из ТРЕХ предложенных вариантов ответа.

ПИСЬМЕННОЕ ЗАДАНИЕ (WRITING)

1.1. Участникам раздаются ЛИСТЫ С ЗАДАНИЯМИ, ЛИСТЫ ОТВЕТОВ и БУМАГА ДЛЯ ЧЕРНОВИКОВ. Участники заполняют графу Participant"s ID number на листах ответов. Само задание указано на листе ответов. В тексте заданий указано время выполнения заданий, количество слов и даны все инструкции по выполнению заданий на английском языке. Черновик сдается вместе с листом ответов. Однако проверке подлежат только листы ответов. Черновики не проверяются.

1.2. Член жюри в аудитории должен зафиксировать время начала и окончания задания на доске (например, 10.10 - 11.55.)

1.3. За 15 и за 5 минут до окончания работы член жюри в аудитории должен напомнить об оставшемся времени и предупредить о необходимости тщательной проверки работы.

1.4. После написания, работы участников олимпиады собираются, шифруются и проверяются комиссией, под руководством опытного руководителя, дающего указания и инструкции группе проверяющих преподавателей. Критерии оценивания в виде таблицы выдаются на руки каждому проверяющему.

Работы участников олимпиады проверяются 2 членами жюри независимо друг от друга. Результаты заносятся в протокол конкурса письменной речи (см. Протокол конкурса письменной речи). Пометки и исправления на оригинале работы не делаются, чтобы они не могли влиять на мнение второго проверяющего. Рекомендуется каждому проверяющему делать пометки на ксероксе работы или записывать замечания на отдельном листке. В качестве итоговой оценки выставляется средний балл двух членов жюри. В случае большого расхождения в оценке проверяемой работы (5 баллов и более), работа проверяется третьим членом жюри и в качестве итоговой оценки выставляется средняя оценка между ближайшими двумя оценками.

Технические средства

Для проведения конкурса письменной речи не требуется специальных технических средств. Помимо необходимого количества листов ответов и черновиков, в аудитории должны быть запасные ручки и запасные листы ответов.

Внимание! Во время конкурсов участникам запрещается пользоваться справочной литературой, собственной бумагой, электронными вычислительными средствами или средствами связи. Участникам не разрешается брать в аудиторию бумагу, справочные материалы (словари, справочники, учебники и т.д.), мобильные телефоны, диктофоны, плейеры, планшеты и любые другие технические средства. Все вышеперечисленные средства связи не разрешается приносить на территорию пункта проведения олимпиады. Если средства связи (даже в выключенном состоянии) будут найдены у участника олимпиады на территории пункта проведения олимпиады, председатель жюри составляет акт о нарушении процедуры проведения олимпиады и результаты участника аннулируются.

Технические средства для проведения аудирования

Для проведения аудирования требуются магнитофоны или CD плейеры в каждой аудитории, обеспечивающие громкость звучания, достаточную для прослушивания в аудитории. При наличии необходимого оборудования возможна компьютерная запись текстов и прослушивание записи через компьютерную систему.

Процедура проведения показа работ и апелляций

В данном разделе Требований описывается процедура проведения показа работ и апелляций.

Перед показом работ и апелляциями необходимо провести анализ правильных ответов.

После разбора заданий начинается показ работ и апелляции. Решение по порядку проведения показа работ и апелляций принимает организатор соответствующего этапа.

На показ работ допускаются только участники олимпиады. Для показа работ необходима одна большая аудитория или несколько небольших аудиторий. В аудитории должны быть столы для членов Жюри и столы для школьников, за которыми они самостоятельно просматривают свои работы. Участник имеет право задать члену Жюри вопросы по оценке приведенного им ответа. В случае если Жюри соглашается с аргументами участника по изменению оценки какого-либо задания в его работе, соответствующее изменение согласовывается с председателем Жюри и оформляется протоколом апелляции.

Проведение апелляции оформляется протоколами, которые подписываются членами Жюри и Оргкомитета.

Протоколы проведения апелляции передаются председателю Жюри для внесения соответствующих изменений в протокол и отчетную документацию.

Документами по проведению апелляции являются:

Письменные заявления об апелляциях участников Олимпиады;

Журнал (листы) регистрации апелляций.

Окончательные итоги олимпиады подводятся с учетом результатов апелляции.

Порядок подведения итогов муниципального этапа олимпиады

Индивидуальные результаты участников олимпиады заносятся в рейтинговую таблицу результатов муниципального этапа олимпиады по данному предмету, представляющую собой ранжированный список участников, расположенных по мере убывания набранных ими баллов (далее - рейтинг). Участники с равным количеством баллов располагаются в алфавитном порядке.

По индивидуальным результатам решения всех олимпиадных заданий на основании рейтинга определяются победители и призеры муниципального этапа олимпиады в соответствии с квотой, установленной организатором муниципального этапа олимпиады.

Итоги муниципального этапа олимпиады подводятся отдельно по возрастным категориям (7 класс, 8 класс, 9 класс, 10 класс, 11 класс).

Документом, фиксирующим итоговые результаты муниципального этапа олимпиады по предмету, является протокол предметного жюри, подписанный председателем и членами жюри.

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Дата создания страницы: 2018-01-08